Shakespeare - Man or Myth?


Was the man we know as Shakespeare really the author of
the "Shakespearean Works"? We know little about the man called
Shakespeare, Did he really write the plays, or is he just a man that 
got confused within history? (Sobran 44) There is not even a
correct spelling of this mans name, Some of the spellings include
Shakspere, Shakespeare, And Shaxpere. Shakespeare, Is it the man, Or 
is it another? (Hayes 1D)

 Shakespeare is both fact and fiction, he was no concern until
nearly two hundred years after he perished, and there is still no 
definite or probably will there ever be a conclusion to this
mystery. (Sobran 44) There is another man that can be attributed with 
the works of "Shakespeare", His name is Edward DeVere, the 17th Earl 
of Oxford. (Bethell 47) 

 The man known as Shakespeare does not fit perfectly into the
necessary criteria to determine the author of these works. Thomas 
Looney invented a series of criteria that had to be filled, in order 
to be a possible candidate for the authorship of the Shakespearean 
works. To have all the knowledge that is portrayed in the works, the 
author must have accomplished many things. These including a superior 
education, from what we know of "Shakespeare", this was not a
possibility.(Bethell 46) We do not even know if Shakespeare has ever
written anything in his life, Nor do we know that he was paid for 
writing these works. The man Shakespeare does not even make a claim 
that he is the author.(Bethell 50) He may not have been able to write 
the simplest thing of all, His own name.(Hayes 1D) 
 Its not how little we know about Shakespeare that causes 
confusion and difficulty, Its the things that we do know about this 
man that cause the confusion and difficulty. We know Shakespears 
father, a glover, could not write. When he signed documents, he simply 
made an "X", This is why it is beleived that Shakespeare could not 
write also, Because he probably did not attend school therefore his 
education was passed down from his father. (Bethell 48)

 We do know much more about the man Edward DeVere. We know that
because deVere was a nobleman, he could not have his name written upon 
his writings because he would be considered of a lower class. The 
plays contain a sense of hate towards some of the noblemen of that 
time period, which also point the authorship towards DeVere. (Hayes 
1D) When DeVere was a young man, he spent a lot of time in Italy and 
Europe, This could explain the great detail used in the Shakespearean 
plays of Venice, and other European locations.(Sobran 45) The sonnets 
have never been able to fit into Shakespears life, On the other hand 
they fit into DeVere's life well. (Sobran 45)

 There are facts that lean both ways in this age old mystery of
authorship, Though the Strafordian man does not fit into the story 
very well, He may have some advantages that the Oxfordian man may not. 
DeVere on the other hand, has mostly every fact pointing towards him 
as the valid author for the "Shakespearean" works, From his education, 
to his experiences, to his travel. The Oxfordian seems to come out on 
top. Shakespeare: Stratforidan, or DeVere?

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